Zeta Function - Part 11 - Riemann Functional Equation I
Why Mathematics Stack Exchange recommends it
Mathematics Stack Exchange users link it as an approachable, step-by-step walkthrough of the analytic continuation and functional equation proof for the Riemann zeta function.
Recommended by 2 people across 2 different months, 2017 to 2019.
What it is
A university-style lecture, part 11 of MrYouMath's Zeta Function series, deriving the Riemann functional equation for the zeta function. It builds on the Gamma and Theta functions and uses integration and substitution, splitting an integral into two ranges to reach the symmetry between zeta(s) and zeta(1-s).
What people said
Recommends Agno · 2017-03 · Mathematics Stack Exchange · on “Riemann zeta-function regularization in string theory”
One of the easiest explanations I found on how the analytic continuation of $\zeta(s)$ can be done (without Bernouill-numbers) : [this video] This yields the famous functional equation that relates $\zeta(s)$ to $\zeta(1-s)$ (hence also $\zeta(2)$ to $\zeta(-1)$).
Recommends Peter Driscoll · 2017-08 · Mathematics Stack Exchange · on “Proof of Functional Equation Zeta”
This is to clarify the working, even though all the steps have already been given. Makes it simpler for me to understand. Based on the video [this video] but elaborated to my taste. $$ \xi(s) = \pi^{-s/2}\zeta(s)\Gamma(s/2)= \int_0^\infty \psi(x) x^{s/2-1}\;dx $$ where $\psi$ is given in terms of theta, $ \theta(x)= 2 \psi(x)+1 $ and $\theta$ has the functional equation, $ \theta(x)=\frac{1}{\sqrt{x}}\theta(\frac1{x}) $. The integral will be left in $\psi$, because the maths works out more easily, so rearrange the functional equation in terms of $\psi$. $$ \psi(x)=\psi(\frac1{x})x^{-\frac12}+\frac12 x^{-\frac12} - \frac12 $$ Split the integral into two ranges, 0 to 1, and 1 to infinity. Change th
Cites Antoni Parellada · 2017-06 · Mathematics Stack Exchange · on “Elements needed to derive the Riemann-Siegel Z function”
On this post [LINK] I got a comment to motivate the present question: To prove a zero $\zeta(s_0)=0, s_0 \approx 1/2+iy$ is exactly on the critical line, it is enough to prove the real function [LINK] $Z(t) = \zeta(1/2+it) e^{i \,\text{arg}(\Gamma(1/4+it/2)}\, \pi^{-it/2}$ changes of sign around $t=y$. We know $Z(t)$ is real for $t$ real thanks to the functional equation [LINK] . So I would like to ask for some help understanding where the expression $$\large Z(t) = \zeta\left(\frac{1}{2}+it\right)\quad e^{i \;\text{arg}\left(\Gamma(\frac{1}{4}+\frac{it}{2})\right)}\quad \pi^{\frac{-it}{2}}\tag 1$$ comes from. The terser version [LINK] $Z(t)=\zeta\left(\frac{1}{2}+it\right)\; e^{i\theta(t)}$
Cites Shree · 2019-03 · Mathematics Stack Exchange · on “Need reference for proof of functional equation for generalized L-functions”
When proving functional equation for Riemann zeta function one starts at the definition of gamma function $$\Gamma(s) = \int_0^{\infty} x^{s-1} e^x\mathrm dx\tag1$$ After a few steps we arrive at $$ \pi^{-\frac{s}{2}} \Gamma \left(\frac{s}{2} \right) \zeta(s) = \frac{1}{s(1-s)} - \int_1^{\infty} \left( x^{\frac{s}{2}} + x^{\frac{1-s}{2}} \right) \frac{\psi(x)}{x}\mathrm dx\tag2$$ And observing the RHS of the above equation doesn’t change when we replace $s$ with $(1-s)$ in equation $(2)$ to get functional equation below: $$ \pi^{-\frac{s}{2}} \Gamma \left(\frac{s}{2} \right) \zeta(s) = \pi^{-\frac{1-s}{2}} \Gamma \left(\frac{1-s}{2} \right) \zeta(1-s) \tag3 $$ You can watch detail proof here